重庆市城乡建委着力推进智慧政务建设
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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9 hours ago | comment | added | John Bollinger | Wittgenstein may indeed have been saying something more subtle, but I don't think the quoted characterization of Gödel's first incompleteness theorem in fact does summarize that theorem accurately. That moots the rest of the remarks with respect to relevance to the incompleteness theorem. I think we therefore have only these alternatives: (i) he was talking about something related to but different from the IC, or (ii) his remarks in fact do reflect a misunderstanding of the IC, or (iii) he was raising a straw man. Options (i) and (ii) do not exclude the "more subtle" possibility. | |
yesterday | history | answered | Bumble | CC BY-SA 4.0 |